[Oct 16, 2025] CAPM Exam Dumps - PMI Practice Test Questions
New Real CAPM Exam Dumps Questions
NEW QUESTION # 105
A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
- A. Cost control plan
- B. Expected monetary value plan
- C. Project management plan
- D. Resource plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 106
A project manager is considering whether or not to procure a new vendor. What can the project manager use to determine a make-or-buy decision?
- A. Interpersonal skills
- B. Bid documents
- C. Data analysis
- D. Bidder conferences
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://project-management-knowledge.com/definitions/m/make-buy-analysis/
NEW QUESTION # 107
Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?
- A. Manage Communications
- B. Control Communications
- C. Communicate Plan
- D. Report Performance
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
- A. Project plan
- B. Activity duration estimates
- C. Project schedule
- D. Activity list
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Process: 6.2 Define Activities
Definition: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is to break down work packages into activities that provide a basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, monitoring, and controlling the project work.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Scope baseline
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Decomposition
2. Rolling wave planning
3. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Activity list
2. Activity attributes
3. Milestone list
NEW QUESTION # 109
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
- A. Plan Risk Responses
- B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
- C. Define Scope
- D. Report Performance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
- A. Data gathering and representation
- B. Information management systems
- C. Stakeholder analysis
- D. Work performance reports
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Process: 13.4 Control Stakeholder Engagement
Definition: The process of monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it will maintain or increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Issue log
3. Work performance data
4. Project documents
Tools & Techniques
1. Information management systems
2. Expert judgment
3. Meetings
Outputs
1. Work performance information
2. Change requests
3. Project management plan updates
4. Project documents updates
5. Organizational process assets updates
NEW QUESTION # 111
What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables?
- A. Plan Quality Management
- B. Control Quality
- C. Manage Quality
- D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION # 112
A project team has completed the first iteration and the testing manager approved the test report, indicating that the acceptance criteria have been met. The manager of the business unit that will use the new product is asking for additional functionality before approving the rollout for their team.
What should the project manager do next?
- A. Reschedule the rollout to start with another business unit.
- B. Reschedule the rollout to include the new requirements.
- C. Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).
- D. Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 113
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
- A. accept
- B. mitigate
- C. transfer
- D. avoid
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
11.5.2.1 Strategies for Negative Risks or Threats
Three strategies, which typically deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur, are: avoid, transfer, and mitigate. The fourth strategy, accept, can be used for negative risks or threats as well as positive risks or opportunities. Each of these risk response strategies have varied and unique influence on the risk condition. These strategies should be chosen to match the risk's probability and impact on the project's overall objectives. Avoidance and mitigation strategies are usually good strategies for critical risks with high impact, while transference and acceptance are usually good strategies for threats that are less critical and with low overall impact. The four strategies for dealing with negative risks or threats are further described as follows:
Avoid. Risk avoidance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or
protect the project from its impact. It usually involves changing the project management plan to eliminate the threat entirely. The project manager may also isolate the project objectives from the risk's impact or change the objective that is in jeopardy. Examples of this include extending the schedule, changing the strategy, or reducing scope. The most radical avoidance strategy is to shut down the project entirely. Some risks that arise early in the project can be avoided by clarifying requirements, obtaining information, improving communication, or acquiring expertise.
Transfer. Risk transference is a risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a
threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response. Transferring the risk simply gives another party responsibility for its management-it does not eliminate it. Transferring does not mean disowning the risk by transferring it to a later project or another person without his or her knowledge or agreement. Risk transference nearly always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk. Transferring liability for risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Transference tools can be quite diverse and include, but are not limited to, the use of insurance, performance bonds, warranties, guarantees, etc. Contracts or agreements may be used to transfer liability for specified risks to another party. For example, when a buyer has capabilities that the seller does not possess, it may be prudent to transfer some work and its concurrent risk contractually back to the buyer. In many cases, use of a cost- plus contract may transfer the cost risk to the buyer, while a fixed-price contract may transfer risk to the seller.
Mitigate. Risk mitigation is a risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the
probability of occurrence or impact of a risk. It implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk to be within acceptable threshold limits. Taking early action to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions. Mitigation may require prototype development to reduce the risk of scaling up from a bench-scale model of a process or product. Where it is not possible to reduce probability, a mitigation response might address the risk impact by targeting linkages that determine the severity. For example, designing redundancy into a system may reduce the impact from a failure of the original component.
Accept. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge
the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs. This strategy is adopted where it is not possible or cost-effective to address a specific risk in any other way. This strategy indicates that the project team has decided not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. This strategy can be either passive or active. Passive acceptance requires no action except to document the strategy, leaving the project team to deal with the risks as they occur, and to periodically review the threat to ensure that it does not change significantly. The most common active acceptance strategy is to establish a contingency reserve, including amounts of time, money, or resources to handle the risks.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Project management processes ensure the:
- A. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
- B. performance of the project team
- C. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
- D. alignment with organizational strategy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation
Explanation:
Project management processes. These processes ensure the effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle. These processes encompass the tools and techniques involved in applying the skills and capabilities described in the Knowledge Areas (Sections 4 through 13)
NEW QUESTION # 115
A project team member is estimating the cost of an activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?
- A. Three-point estimating
- B. Parametric estimating
- C. Analogous estimating
- D. Bottom-up estimating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://pm4id.org/chapter/9-1-estimating-costs/
NEW QUESTION # 116
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
- A. Cost aggregation
- B. Variance analysis
- C. Trend analysis
- D. Forecasting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
5.6.2.1 Variance Analysis
Variance analysis is a technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance. Project performance measurements are used to assess the magnitude of variation from the original scope baseline. Important aspects of project scope control include determining the cause and degree of variance relative to the scope baseline (Section 5.4.3.1) and deciding whether corrective or preventive action is required.
NEW QUESTION # 117
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
- A. Monitoring and Controlling
- B. Executing
- C. Initiating
- D. Planning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 118
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
- A. 12.
- B. 20.
- C. 24.
- D. 10.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
number of communication channels within a project. N (N - 1) / 2, where N represents the number of identified stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?
- A. Three-point estimating
- B. Bottom-up estimating
- C. Variance analysis
- D. Historical relationships
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 120
A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?
- A. Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.
- B. Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
- C. The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.
- D. The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 121
What is the critical chain method?
- A. A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources
- B. A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least incremental cost
- C. A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project
- D. A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
6.6.2.3 Critical Chain Method
The critical chain method (CCM) is a schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. It is developed from the critical path method approach and considers the effects of resource allocation, resource optimization, resource leveling, and activity duration uncertainty on the critical path determined using the critical path method. To do so, the critical chain method introduces the concept of buffers and buffer management. The critical chain method uses activities with durations that do not include safety margins, logical relationships, and resource availability with statistically determined buffers composed of the aggregated safety margins of activities at specified points on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties. The resource-constrained critical path is known as the critical chain.
NEW QUESTION # 122
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The CAPM exam is designed and administered by the Project Management Institute (PMI), a globally recognized professional association for project managers. Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) certification exam is based on the PMI's Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide), which is considered the industry standard for project management. CAPM exam covers the five process groups of project management: initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing. The CAPM certification is valid for five years, after which you need to retake the exam or earn a higher-level certification, such as the PMP (Project Management Professional).
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